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I heaven't posted here in awhile so I decided to update my story.  In October of 2007 I found out that I was pregnant for the fourth time (oops)!  One of the first phone calls I made was to the urologist.  I was due for a scope in Dec but he felt we should wait until I was well into my second trimester.  I just had a cysto last week.  The procedure was uncomfortable as always.  Everything looked good Thank God!  I did experience a lot of cramping after the procedure.  He asked my obstetrician to do a UA at each appointment and decided not to scope me again unless there is hematuria for the

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I just had my one year all clear cysto yesterday!  We are going to continue with a cysto every three months for the next year.  The uro told me that I have about a 60% chance of reoccurance and less than a 20% chance that if the cancer comes back it would become invasive. For now everything looks good!

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Here is my story.  I first saw blood in my urine when I was 20.  I was treated for a UTI and the bleeding stopped.  I continued to get re-occurent bladder infections for the following five years.  I am not sure if I ever had infections now or not.  In April of '06 I had an ultrasound to measure the development of my baby who was measuring small.  I had to drink a lot of water to fill my bladder.  The ultrasound was extremely painful.  I went home and peed what looked like cranberry juice.  At all of my following prenatal and post partum visits I had microscopic hematuria which was never even

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HI

I was looking over my pathology and I noticed in the macroscopic descprition the last sentence reads No stromal invasion is seen and no muslaris propria is seen on the slide.  Can the URO and Pathologist accurately make the statement that the tumor is not invasive if no muscle is seen?  Would the tumor had to have grown into the underlying stroma and then the mucle?  So would it be definitive to say that if the tumor had not grown into the stroma that it could not have grown into the muscle?

Any reply is appreciated

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