I was looking over my pathology and I noticed in the macroscopic descprition the last sentence reads No stromal invasion is seen and no muslaris propria is seen on the slide. Can the URO and Pathologist accurately make the statement that the tumor is not invasive if no muscle is seen? Would the tumor had to have grown into the underlying stroma and then the mucle? So would it be definitive to say that if the tumor had not grown into the stroma that it could not have grown into the muscle?
Any reply is appreciated